Two questions about Mary, the meaning of her virginity after giving birth, and why Zechariah was treated harshly

Dear Dominican Friends,

I have two questions for you.

While I understand the dogma of the Immaculate Conception (to conceive Jesus, one must be without sin, which is why Mary was preserved from original sin), I cannot understand the dogma of Mary’s perpetual virginity.

If Mary was married to Joseph, why did she not want (or was she unable?) to have sexual relations with Joseph after the birth of Jesus and perhaps have other children?

Isn’t a Christian marriage based precisely on the union of bodies (he will leave his father and mother and become one flesh) as well as souls?

I’ll ask a somewhat provocative question: wouldn’t a marriage lived in virginity, where husband and wife live as brother and sister, be subject to annulment today?

The answer that comes to mind at the moment is that God wanted Mary to remain a virgin so that she could be even more the Mother of us all, the Mother of humanity. If she had had other children after Jesus, this role as Mother of us all would have been lost. Because of this particular plan that God had for her, her Christian marriage was unique and sui generis.

I would like to know your opinion on this subject.

As for the second question: reading the beginning of Luke’s Gospel, it seems to me that there is a disparity in the treatment of Zechariah and Mary by the archangel Gabriel.

Or rather: the angel appears to both of them; both are frightened; the angel tells both of them not to be afraid and announces the extraordinary event that will take place; both Zechariah and Mary wonder how this is possible, the one because of his and his wife’s advanced age, the other because she is still a virgin; Well, I wonder, why does the archangel punish Zechariah for saying, “How can I be sure of what you say?” by making him mute, while he is patient with Mary and provides further and more detailed explanations (Luke 1:34-38)? Isn’t he a little too harsh, if you’ll pardon the expression, with Zechariah?

The explanation I give myself is that through Zechariah, the archangel wants to pave the way for Mary so that she sees in Zechariah and Elizabeth the confirmation of what she heard from Gabriel. Zechariah’s silence would be a sign to Mary of the imminent birth of Jesus, just as John’s baptism would be a sign to humanity of the beginning of Jesus’ public life.

I would also like to discuss this topic with you.

Thank you in advance for your answers.

Peace and good

Francesco

Priest’s response

Dear Francesco,

1. I have already responded to a visitor on the subject of Mary’s virginity after the birth of Jesus.

You can find the answer in the section on dogmatic theology – Mariology dated 7/22/2007.

The spiritual reasoning you give is certainly correct.

Mary is the mother of Christ in a unique way, and she is the mother of all of us in the order of grace in the same way.

2. For the second question, it is necessary to have the texts at hand.

And for this reason, I am quoting them.

Zachariah replied to the angel, saying, “Zachariah said to the angel, ‘How can I know this? I am old, and my wife is advanced in years.’ The angel answered him, ‘I am Gabriel, who stands in the presence of God, and I was sent to bring you this good news. Behold, you will be mute and unable to speak until the day these things come to pass, because you did not believe my words, which will be fulfilled in their time” (Luke 1:18-20).

Zachariah asks for a sign: How can I know this?

Heaven gives him a sign, but not in the sense he expected.

3. That there was a certain mistrust in Zechariah emerges from the words: I am old and my wife is advanced in years, and above all from the words that Elizabeth, moved by the Holy Spirit, says to Mary: “Blessed is she who believed that the Lord’s words would be fulfilled” (Lk 1:45). Here the allusion to Zechariah is evident. He remained mute because he showed a certain distrust.

In Elizabeth’s words, on the other hand, the greatness of Mary’s faith is exalted.

4. Your explanation of the second question contains some weaknesses.

In fact, Mary does not run to her cousin Elizabeth to see if it is true that she is pregnant. She believes it! She does not need confirmation. She runs to be of service to her cousin, who is now elderly and close to giving birth (she is six months pregnant).

5. Likewise, the Virgin Mary does not need to know that the birth of Jesus is imminent.

She already knew this because of the abundant new sanctification she received at the moment of the Incarnation of the Word.

In fact, if Elizabeth was filled with the presence of the Holy Spirit because of the approach of Jesus, who was in her cousin’s womb, must not Mary have felt the Incarnation of God infinitely more strongly?

This is the thesis of St. Thomas.

6. I congratulate you on your considerations. You do well to reflect on the sacred texts. I would be happy if you also had the vocation of a theologian! It would be a great grace for you and for the Christian people.

I send you my warmest regards, assure you of my prayers, and bless you.

Father Angelo

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