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Rev. F. Angelo, 
I have read your post on amicidomenicani.it: “I would like to understand why God’s name Yahweh in our Bible has been completely erased and replaced with God or the Lord”.
In a passage of Your text, you quote John 10,30, in other words you wrote expressly: “Moreover, Jesus had clearly spoken of his perfect equality with the Father when he said: “The Father (God) and I are one and the same thing” (John 10,30)”. (t.n)
When you have a moment, could you please give me an explanation of the question of Jesus being one with God the Father?
I thank you for your helpfulness and send you respectful greetings.
Pier Filippo 

Priest’s answer

Dear Pier Filippo,

1. the text translated by the Italian Bishops Conference “The Father (God) and I are one and the same thing” (John 10,30) (t/n) could lead to a misunderstanding.
Even husband and wife after marital consent become one and the same thing. But with this difference, that their becoming one and the same thing belongs to the moral order because the two, husband and wife, keep existing in two different substances, whilst Jesus’ and the Father being one and the same thing belongs to the ontological order. Father and Son together with the Holy Spirit exist in a single substance.

2. It would have probably been better to translate: “I and the Father are one’”.
The latin text says: “Ego, et Pater unum sumus” (I and the Father are one). 
The same is in Greek: én, which means one.

3. Jesus uses this expression in reference to the sheep he is talking about: “My sheep hear my voice; I know them, and they follow me. I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish. No one can take them out of my hand. My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one can take them out of the Father’s hand. The Father and I are one” (John 10,27-30).

4. Marco Sales comments: “No one can snatch the sheep from my Father’s hand, but I and the Father, although personally distinct, are nevertheless one, that is, we have the same identical nature, the same identical power, etc… and therefore no one will be able to snatch them from my hand”. (t/n)
In this verse the consubstantiality of the Son with the Father is clearly stated. And the personal distinction between the Father and the Son is also clearly stated.

5.If you then connect this statement with the previous verse: “My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one can take them out of the Father’s hand” it can be deduced that the Son is as great as the Father, he has the same power as him.

6. Saint Thomas in lapidary terms: “Therefore the Father and the Son are one (one and the same thing) by nature, by honor and by power”. (t/n)

7. and Saint Augustine: “If men have become gods because of the word of God addressed to them, how can the very Word of God who is with God not be God? If men become gods by participating in the word of God, will not the word in which they participate be God?”.
The Jews wanted to stone Jesus because he claimed to be God.
But Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, “You are gods”‘? If it calls them gods to whom the word of God came, and scripture cannot be set aside, can you say that the one whom the Father has consecrated and sent into the world blasphemes because I said, «I am the Son of God»? If I do not perform my Father’s works, do not believe me; but if I perform them, even if you do not believe me, believe the works, so that you may realize (and understand) that the Father is in me and I am in the Father’’(John 10,34-38).

With the wish to always be “God by participation” because the word of God has been addressed to you, I bless you and remember you in prayer.
Father Angelo